[HPFGU-OTChatter] Sexism -- what should the term mean?

[Jennifer Boggess Ramon]

At 4:08 PM +0000 7/20/02, judyserenity wrote:
>
>I said:
>>>  If there is no term that specifically refers to mistreatment of
>women, then won't that problem become invisible? <<

No.  It's certainly not invisible to women, and never has been.  The 
Sapir-Whorf Hypothesis is not that strong!  But it's moot, as there 
is a word with that specific meaning; as Athena has already pointed 
out, it's "misogyny".

>But, since sexism is also being
>defined as "division of labor", this wouldn't have made any sense.

Sure it would.  It would have been mildly ambiguous, but everyone 
would have figured out what you mean.  That a word has two 
definitions does not mean one or the other is somehow eclipsed.


-- 
  - Boggles, aka J. C. B. Ramon			boggles at earthlink.net
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