Question about New (now Old) Testament
Steve
bboy_mn at yahoo.com
Sat Aug 9 07:49:13 UTC 2003
--- In HPFGU-OTChatter at yahoogroups.com, "Richelle Votaw" <rvotaw at i...>
wrote:
> bboy_mn:
>
> > ... I have read the section in the Bible on Sodom and Gomorrha,
>> and I can't find anything that confirms homosexuality.
>
>
> Richelle:
> The New International Version is of course more modern English and
> says it quite bluntly. Verse 4 and in NIV:
>
> 5 They called to Lot, "Where are the men who came to you tonight?
> Bring them out to us so that we can have sex with them."
>
> This is followed, of course, by Lot offering the men his two virgin
> daughters, who they had no interest in.
>
> Richelle
bboy_mn:
The Oxford-Cambridge Revised English Bible which is a wholely new
translation from the original text, and not just a re-write of an
existing translation, says, 'Intercourse' which as I pointed out is
subject to interpretation.
So now the question is, were each and everyone of these people who
called for Lot to send the men out so they could 'know them'/'have sex
with them'/'engage in intercourse' with them, homosexual?
I still say that a vast vast majority of them were hetrosexual, and,
as I said before, it is the action of the people, and not their state
of being that is the sin. They commited a sinful act but that sinful
act had nothing to do with being gay.
Just a thought.
bboy_mn
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