Him and I

[bohcoo]

Since we have wandered into grammar, I would like everyone's opinion 
about this example. I was taught that the following is correct:  "It 
did not matter to him and me." However, lately I keep hearing, "It did 
not matter to him and I," or worse, "It did not matter to he and I," 
both of which make me cringe. 

Did the rules change?

And, on a related topic, does it seem that in the Harry Potter movies 
the English actors frequently put verbal emphasis in the wrong places? 
The only example of this that I can come up with at the moment is from 
Sorcerer's Stone when Dumbledore is about to eat the Bertie Botts bean 
and he says that in his youth he came across a "Vomit FLAVORED one and 
since then have lost my liking FOR them." I think an American actor 
would have said it thus, "VOMIT flavored one and have lost my LIKING 
for them." Do English people really put their emphasis on their words 
so differently from us Americans?

Thanks for your opinions
bohcoo