Him and I

[Geoff Bannister]

--- In HPFGU-OTChatter at yahoogroups.com, "potioncat" 
<willsonkmom at ...> wrote:
>
> 
> >
> > Since we have wandered into grammar, I would like everyone's 
> opinion 
> > about this example. I was taught that the following is 
> correct:  "It 
> > did not matter to him and me." However, lately I keep 
hearing, "It 
> did 
> > not matter to him and I," or worse, "It did not matter to he and 
> I," 
> > both of which make me cringe. 
> 
> Potioncat:
> I think "him and me" are correct, but I don't remember why. 

Geoff:

The way to test it is to say "It did not matter 
to I" and "It did njot matter to me". Which sounds 
right?

Technically, the second. Because "to" is followed 
by a dative (or an objective, if you agree with 
Carol)

bohcoo
>  Do English people really put their emphasis on their words 
> > so differently from us Americans?

Geoff:
Don't Americans from different areas use different 
stress patterns? True also of Brits. A Welshman, for example, 
emphasises in a differetn way to a Cornishman.

Potioncat:
> I'd suggest renting some British movies or TV shows and enjoy the 
 
> On that note, is Geoff around? My local library has a TV/movie 
> version of "To Serve Them All my Days." Do you know if it's any 
good?

TheTV version was released originally around 1980/1 and was 
pretty good. It finally came out in DVD in 1006. I've got that.