Him and I

[Carol]

-"bohcoo" wrote:
>
> Since we have wandered into grammar, I would like everyone's opinion 
> about this example. I was taught that the following is correct:  "It 
> did not matter to him and me." However, lately I keep hearing, "It did 
> not matter to him and I," or worse, "It did not matter to he and I," 
> both of which make me cringe. 
> 
> Did the rules change? <snip>

Carol responds:

Nope. The rules haven't changed. "To him and me" is correct; objective
case for the objects of the preposition. (See our recent discussion of
the objective case.)

Carol, who thinks that "to him and I" is even worse than "to he and I"
because it mixes objective with subjective/nominative case