Priori Incantatem and ghost food

[Firebolt]

No: HPFGUIDX 1432

> I think the most convincing argument that I have seen is that the can eat
> but have no need to. This fits with the comments Sir Nicholas de
> Mimsy-Porpington makes at the first feast. Which solves the mystery of the
> administration of the Mandrake Potion to Sir Nicholas de Mimsy-Porpington.

But then, wouldn't the ghosts at his Deathday Party be eating and drinking,
instead of just trying to?

<Voldemort said explicitly in PS/SS that he killed James first.
Voldemort didn't have much motivation to lie at the time so he
probably was telling the truth as he believed it.  If James wasn't
killed first, how could it have happened? Voldemort may not have used
Avada Kedavra on James for some reason, (died when the house blew up)
or maybe James was actually the first person to survive it, at least
for a while. There's holes in that idea: if James survived it, even
for a moment, the spell should have backfired at least a little and
Voldemort would have known it.  OTOH, I can't come up with a
reasonable objection to your theory.>

GoF, The Parting of the Ways, Dumbledore:

"If, however, the owners of the wands force the wands to do battle...<snip>
One of the wands will force the other to regurgitate spells it has
performed - in reverse."

Even if James didn't die immediately, since the spell that eventually killed
him (we think) came before the Killing Curse that killed Lily, shouldn't he
still emerge after she did?

~Firebolt