British v. American Versions

[justanopinion2001 at hotmail.com]

No: HPFGUIDX 25884

This message has to do with some old messages about Ch. 1 of GoF and 
the "murder" that will leave Voldemort's path clear to Harry.  I read 
those messages, and now I'm really confused.  

I have two copies of GoF:  One purchased in London September 2000, 
and one purchased in the U.S., maybe in April 2001.  I am hoping that 
someone can tell me what the editors are doing regarding the 
correction of two flints:

In my U.K. version, the wand order is wrong.  Also, in Ch. 1, when 
Wormtail and Voldemort are discussing the murder before Harry's, they 
refer to it as a "curse,"  which leads to the conclusion that they 
are speaking of Wormtail's reluctance to subdue the real Mad Eye so 
that Crouch can become Mad Eye.  Or maybe the curse to subdue Crouch 
Sr.

In my U.S. version, which had to be printed later, the wand order is 
corrected.  But in Ch. 1, the text refers to a "murder" that will 
clear the way to Harry.  I cannot figure out who this could possibly 
be that they are referring to.  (I could quote the whole text, if 
anyone needs me to, but I won't so that this message will be shorter).

So what's going on?  I find it hard to believe that the U.S. editors 
would just randomly change "curse" to "murder" without JKR's 
authority (didn't she say that all changes made for the U.S. versions 
are with her express approval)?  If JKR meant to make this change, 
why? Is there something about the editing of subsequent versions of a 
book that I don't understand?  Can anyone help?

Laura