magic late in life
Katze
jdumas at kingwoodcable.com
Wed Nov 27 17:24:37 UTC 2002
No: HPFGUIDX 47291
(Note: I sent this out yesterday but was having trouble with my server. I
haven't seen it show up on the list yet so I'm resending it. Sorry if this is a
duplicate.)
I know we've talked about the person doing magic late in life, and many people
seem to think that it might be one of the Durselys. I think it might be, but I
think the Dursely will be Aunt Marge.
I haven't re-read GoF, so I don't remember if there are any incidents with Aunt
Marge - so I'm going based on POA because that's the book I have in front of me.
In PoA, Aunt Marge breaks her cup, and gets blown up. We think it's Harry doing
it because of Aunt Marge's jabs, but is it really? Rowling is very good at
deflecting the truth of the matter, so let's consider what has to happen for
Marge to actually do magic without us noticing. There are two converups.
1. That she broke a glass the same way at the Colonel's house. This makes us
believe that she just has a strong grip like she says, but we don't know the
circumstances why the glass broke at his house. A glass could actually break
without any magic at all.
2. Underage magic. In order for us to believe that Harry actually blew up Aunt
Marge, there would have to be another instance of underage magic to deflect the
Ministry's position on Harry's magic (they didn't warn him like they did in CoS,
but rather pawned it off as a mistake). Had Harry not used magic to fling open
the door, would there have been any warning/forgiveness on the Ministry's part?
Fudge does say that they forgive him for blwoing up his Aunt, but is that what
they think he did, or do they just asssume that the blow incident was the magic
and not the closet door? Also - Aunt Marge was extremely angry right before she
got blown up - so I wonder if it was her own anger that caused it.
Does this make sense?
Your thoughts?
Katze
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