[HPforGrownups] Re: Magic Detection

Christopher Nuttall christopher_g_nuttall at hotmail.com
Sat Oct 5 07:05:23 UTC 2002


No: HPFGUIDX 44987

Hi.  I think that there is a pattern, its just very sutle and well hidden.  For reasons best known to Dumbledore, the WW has seen fit to leave its greatest hero ignorant of its existance until he became old enough to go to hogwarts.  Therfore, there was a real limit to what the WW could achive without revealing (to harry) its existance.  

None of the small events mentioned in Book 1 seem to have been earthshaking.  Seeing that they were done by an ignorant child (and Dumbledore might assume that the Dursley's had told harry about his heritage), they may just have noted them and ignored them.  However, in books 2 and 3, harry knows about the WW and he also knows that doing magic outside school is ilegal.  Therefore, they can interfere at will.  

I don't think its hanky-panky, just people being very limited in what they do.

Chris
  ----- Original Message ----- 
  From: jodel at aol.com 
  To: HPforGrownups at yahoogroups.com 
  Sent: Saturday, October 05, 2002 7:30 AM
  Subject: [HPforGrownups] Re: Magic Detection



  Sheryl writes;

  << So what's the deal?  Is this a <gasp> mistake, or is there some pattern I'm
  missing?  Of course, there are 3 more books coming, perhaps all will be
  explained.  >>

  Well if there IS a pattern I wish someone would explain it to ME. Because it 
  completely escapes me. I am growing into the interpretation that the whole 
  "magical monitoring" concept is a rather shabby device that Rowling is 
  jerking around and rewriting to suit whatever she wants it to be at any given 
  moment. And that's pretty much my point. Because it doesn't seem to be at all 
  consistent as far as the information that we'vwe been given to date goes. 

  If we look at the evidence so far;

  Book 1. For ten years Harry has been producing intermittent but highly 
  noticable spontaneous magical "breakthroughs" and the Ministry of magic does 
  *nothing* about any of them.

  Book 2. One floating pudding and Harry gets a nasty-gram threatening 
  expulsion within five minutes of the incident. Furthermore, that floating 
  pudding was produced wandlessly (House Elves are forbidden to have wands, 
  remember?), how did the MOM come to the conclusion that this wasn't just 
  another breakthrough? 

  Book 3. Harry produces another and fairly spectacular breakthrough 
  (wandlessly again, I might add), The Magical Reversal squad, complete with 
  obliviators show up within the hour. Harry is reassured that no one seems to 
  hold this against him and his Aunt Marge doesn't remember a thing.

  Is it just me, or are these incidents totally inconsistent with one another? 
  What the hell is Rowling playing at? Huh?

  -JOdel, who realizes that by posting this there is a risk of looking totally 
  foolish if OoP comes out with a full expose of hanky-panky in the Ministry 
  Dept in charge of monitoring underage wizards.

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