Possible silly question about Werewolves
Steve
bboy_mn at yahoo.com
Thu Aug 21 23:23:16 UTC 2003
No: HPFGUIDX 78326
--- In HPforGrownups at yahoogroups.com, "Sharon" <rdhdwldflwr at c...> wrote:
> Dark Lady said -Lupin, in discussing his lycanthropy, says that
"they didn't have a cure BACK THEN." (Emphasis obviously my own. )
Would that
> not imply that there is a cure NOW?"
>
> I wondered that too and why isn't the guy in book 5 getting the cure?
>
> Sharon
bboy_mn:
This assumes that Lupin used the term CURE in the absolute literal
sense, and not in the general 'we all know what I mean' conversational
sense.
I think the intended context is the general conversational sense.
It doesn't imply that there is a cure now, only that 'back then' there
was nothing he could do. Now at least he has some form of treatment.
But no cure THEN and no cure NOW, but maybe a cure in the very near
future.
But then, that's just my opinion.
So now the big question. Will Neville's Mimblus Mimbletonia turn out
to cure his parent, cure wereworlves, both, or neither?
bboy_mn
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