A new interpretation of the prophecy

[Jayne]

No: HPFGUIDX 69887

Hi there - Well I don't usually have time to leave messages here 
although I read lots - however, I HAD to reply to this one because I 
think it is an AMAZING concept - well done Florentine - I just 
thought that, after reading the prophecy, the 7th chapter of the 7th 
book - which, of course, JKR has already written - would simply be 
about the duel of wands between LV and HP and which of the two of 
them survives.  Your idea has MUCH more interest, excitement and 
depth to it.

Jayne

--- In HPforGrownups at yahoogroups.com, "Florentine Maier" 
<florentinemaier at h...> wrote:
> Hi!
> 
> I think the prophecy CAN'T mean what it seems to mean. Otherwise 
the 
> basic moral of the book would be "kill or be killed", and that 
> wouldn't be worthy of JKR.
> 
> So I tried to find a different meaning, and I've come up with the 
> following:
> 
> Let's have a look at the prophecy first:
> 
> "The one with the power to vanquish the Dark Lord approaches ... 
born 
> to those who have thrice defied him, born as the seventh month 
> dies ... and the Dark lord will mark him as equal, but he will have 
> power the Dark Lord knows not ... and either must die at the hand 
of 
> the other for neither can live while the other survives ... the one 
> with the power to vanquish the Dark Lord will be born as the 
seventh 
> month dies ... "
> 
> The last sentence appears to be just a repetition of what's been 
said 
> before. But you could also read the last sentence another way:
> "the one with the power to vanquish the Dark Lord will be born as 
the 
> seventh month dies"
> means:
> "the one with the power to prevent that the Dark Lord will be born 
in 
> the end of July".
> 
> Therefore, time-turning will be required. Harry will go back into 
the 
> past and by making friends with Tom Riddle, he will prevent Riddle 
> from turning into Lord Voldemort. The moment Harry turns the time-
> turner, Voldemort "dies at Harrys hand", respectively will never be 
> born.
>    That would also explain the strange deja-vu experience in CoS, 
> where Harry feels as if he had known Tom Riddle before and as if he 
> had been a friend of his.
>    And it would also explain why us muggles have no ideas what 
events 
> in our world would correspond to the first reign of Voldemort in 
the 
> 1970s. (As opposed to the times of Grindelwald, which corrspond to 
> world war II.) - Because it will never have happend!
>    Talking about narrative necessities, it would also explain why 
JKR 
> has given Voldemort an "human" past, and why time-turning is 
> introduced in PoA.
> 
> What do you think?
> Florentine