Neville's broken nose

[dj_bagshaw]

No: HPFGUIDX 85809

> Angel adds:
> There's two interesting points to add to this. The first is in 
> Flitwick's first lesson, where he cautions that students should 
> pronounce things properly, citing a wizard that didn't. The second 
is 
> the spell that Dolohov uses on Hermione, wordlessly. These two 
instances 
> seem to be slightly contradictory.
> Any ideas?
> 


I believe the stronger and more trained the wizard, the less the 
incantations are needed.  Take Dumbledore, for example...if I'm not 
mistaken, there are not many occasions that we see Dumbledore perform 
magic *with* incantations; he usually performs his magic soundlessly 
(a good example is his "excape" from the aurors in OoP - just a bunch 
of cracks are heard, no spellcasting).  In this same scene, Kingsley 
also simply *whispers* the incantation to modify Marietta's memory, 
and to my mind, a whisper is a very indecipherable thing where 
syllabic emphasis is concerned.  There are many, many more examples 
of magic without incantations being performed, through all of the 
novels (note, however, that a wand is *always* present, incantation 
or none).

I really don't know if any of this makes sense to you...I am still 
unsure of most of it.  But I do think that the difficulty of the 
spell might also have something to do with it...if I recall 
correctly, Harry says that had the Death Eater been able to say the 
incantation to the spell with which Hermione is hit at the end of 
OoP, it would have caused much more damage.

~Kate