a maddening question of my own

[dorapye]

No: HPFGUIDX 91213

> dj_bagshaw wrote:
> > In CoS, we learn that Hagrid was expelled from Hogwarts 
> for "opening 
> > the chamber of secrets".  Now that his name has been cleared, 
why 
> is 
> > he still not allowed to practice and/or learn magic?  If it was 
> all a 
> > misunderstanding (as it turns out it was), why can't he have a 
> wand 
> > again?
> 
> Hitomi:
> Er... he is allowed.
> 
> From South West News Service:  
> 
> Q: "Since Hagrid's name was cleared in Book 2, will he ever be 
> allowed to do magic openly again?" (Jan Campbell)
> 
> JKR: "He is allowed. He has been allowed to do magic openly ever 
> since he became a teacher but because he was never fully trained 
his 
> magic is never going to be what it should be. He is always going 
to 
> be a bit inept."
> 
dorapye:
Yes....I seem to remember feeling quite satisfied about 
Hagrid's 'licence' to use magic being reinstated after CoS...and 
then, in OotP, in Chapter 20, Hagrid's Tale (p377 UK Ed):

"...so we got inter France an' we made like we was headin' fer where 
Olympe's school is, 'cause we knew we was bein' tailed by someone 
from the Ministry. We had to go slow, 'cause I'm not really s'posed 
ter use magic an' we knew the Ministry'd be lookin' fer a reason to 
run us in...."

So, he's not supposed to use magic, *still*? This contradicts the 
Canon herself (see above)! 

On reading OotP, I revised my original assumption that Hagrid was 
given a complete pardon by the Ministry and had had his wizard 
status reconferred; I decided he must have been given a conditional 
reinstatement - something like: he is allowed to practice magic, but 
only under Dumbledore's 'supervision' and any magical accidents that 
he causes are therefore ultimately DD's responsibility.  This was my 
own little explanation and I don't expect anyone to take it too 
seriously - it is completely a-canon.

But, the next logical conclusion this allowed me to draw was that, 
with DD held 'in contempt' of The Ministry with his Voldy 
declarations, and consequently removed from all positions of 
authority Fudge had the power to influence, Hagrid's conditional 
reinstatement was revoked and Hagrid is again not allowed to do 
magic...see whee I'm going, here?


I have a feeling this was discussed only recently on site but I 
didn't follow the threads to the end (time constraints), so I don't 
know what the conclusions were, but I have never read that JKR quote 
before.  It's left me more than a little confused.....did I get it 
*completely* wrong? Did I misundertand Hagrid's statement about not 
being allowed to do magic in OotP?

Please help me straighten this one out...!
dorapye