Weasleys as heir of Slytherin

[Lynn Allen]

No: HPFGUIDX 88464

The arguments about specific wizards or witches being
the heir of Slytherin (or Gryffindor, or any other
prominent wizard of 1000 years ago) confuse me
somewhat. They seem to hinge on the definition of the
word "heir" which many of us seem to confuse with
"descendent". Given how much inter-marriage there had
been between purebred wizard families, after 1000 it
would be logical that nearly all families would have
some genetic connection to Slytherin, Gryffindor,
Hufflepuff and Ravenclaw, assuming they each had
children. After 400 generations (assuming 25 years per
generation), there would be only a small percentage of
genetic inheritance from someone that far back, but
most everyone would have some genes from Hogwarts'
prominent founders.

     To me the issue of being someone's "heir" seems
less based on direct lineage and more on selection
based on commonality of personality and values unless
I am way off base. Tom Riddle romaticized Slytherin
and tried to follow in his footsteps, but probably had
little more Slytherin genetic heritage than many other
pureblood wizards.

Thoughts?

Lynn

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