The Prophecy -- "Marking"

[gelite67]

No: HPFGUIDX 108320

I'm hung up on the "and the Dark Lord will mark him as his 
equal . . ." language.  Was Harry marked (scarred) because LV's AK 
curse failed? Is the "marking" the literal scarring or just the 
choosing of Harry?  Was the marking language an implicit prediction 
that LV would be unsuccessful or are we to assume that Harry would 
have received the same scar had he died? I haven't found any other 
reference to scars on the other victims of the AK curse, but, of 
course no one else lived. To me, if Harry had died, he wouldn't have 
been LV's equal, so the only way LV could have marked Harry (or 
whomever) as his equal would be if LV's AK curse failed.

Angie