prior incantantum... Mistake / Clue? I'm confused!

[doddiemoemoe]

No: HPFGUIDX 124248


--- In HPforGrownups at yahoogroups.com, "Steve" <bboyminn at y...> wrote:
> 
> --- In HPforGrownups at yahoogroups.com, "bleckybecs" 
<bleckybecs at y...>
> wrote:
> > 
> > I was just reading the thread about 'prior incantantum'.
> > 
> > The thing I'm confused about (now that I've just thought of it), 
is 
> > what happened to the AK that LV aimed at Harry? It was a spell 
cast 
> > by LV's wand, why is there no prior incantantum of any sort for 
this 
> > spell? ...edited..
> > 
> > Thank you
> > 
> > Becky :)

Doddiemoemoe now:

Well, first off....there would be no prior incantantem spell as 15 
mo.(or so) old Harry would have no wand!


> 
> bboyminn:
>> Summary
> Point 1 - The AK against Harry that rebounded on Voldemort was a 
once
> in the entire history of the wizard world event. It would not act 
like
> a standard AK, and the results would not be predictable or obvious.
> So, it was probably there but Harry missed it.
> 
> Point 2- There are probably lots of spells that don't give clearcut
> obvious unambiguous signs when they are drawn from a wand by the
> Reverse Spell effect, but an Auror and other experienced wizard, 
like
> Mr Diggory, are probably able to interpret the more subtle sign 
sthose
> spells would produce.
> 
> Make it all up, but I think it's a good quess.
> 
> Steve/bboyminn

Doddiemoe again:


It is a good question, your point one holds no water as whether 
voldy knew it or not...the Godricks Hollow episode was to mark Harry 
as his equal!!!

and point two: we still have no idea if Harry experiences/see's 
spells the same way the rest do!  (Maybe Luna if we are lucky!)  I 
hope these questions come up in class in the upcoming years.

Doddiemoemoe
(I'm not trying to be difficult...I've had the same questions 
floating around for years now!)