The murder of Tom Riddle Sr.

[chnc1024 at AOL.COM]

No: HPFGUIDX 125326

I was thinking.  How is it that Voldemort was able to murder his  father
using an AK, without the MoM becoming involved?? When Harry  was 
blamed for Dobby's hovering spell, and using the Patronus
Charm almost immediately owls were on their way.  So how if they  reacted 
so strongly to something like that (and yes I do recognize the fact  that
the Ministry was after Harry in OoP, and was looking for a reason to 
shut him up, but still...) could an underage wizard manage to get  away
with using an unforgivable curse in a mostly-muggle town (I say  mostly
because I don't know if there were wizards there)
 
And also, if the MoM is able to detect what magic is being done  and 
where, then why aren't Ministry officials dispatched whenever anyone 
uses an unforgivable curse?  It seems an easy way to find DE's.   And 
yes I know it would be hard to monitor EVERY wizard and witch in the 
WW, but why not at least monitor the suspected DE's.  Kind of like 
having a phone tap, for suspected terrorist, or major drug  dealers. I'm 
sure someone out there can give an opinion on this one way or the 
other, I'd love to hear!
 
Oh and just one more thing, I say "underage wizard" referring to  Voldemort,
because the murder was said to be 50 years ago.  We know Tom  Riddle
was in school then because of the fact that "50 years ago", was when  the
Chamber of Secrets was opened and he was obviously still in school.  I  don't 
know what year he was in, some could argue that he was in his last  year,
and therefore allowed to do magic like Fred and George were.  And I  would
say that this is possible, except for the fact that Tom wants to stay at 
Hogwarts over the break so he doesn't have to go back to the  orphanage
until next term.  Another question, do any of you think that "50  years ago" 
seems to be a pretty important time, or am I just reading too much  into
these two instances?
 
 
 
Chancie


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