How Inclusive is the Prophecy?

[ahsonazmat]

No: HPFGUIDX 135830


      I had a thought, and perhaps someone has already aired this 
out. But if not: the prophecy by Trelawney, to Dumbledore, heard by 
Snape, known to Harry and LV...didn't DD say that it was effective 
and, indirectly, "binding", only inasmuch as Harry and LV chose to 
acknowledge it? Often it is mentioned, in HBP, that it is only 
because Harry and LV _act_ on it that it applies - LV in trying to 
kill Harry when he was an infant, Harry with the same reciprocate 
intention now. But, as DD said to Harry, they could "walk away", and 
the prophecy would mean nothing. It means something only becuase 
Harry would not want to walk away, would want to see LV destroyed. 

    I don't think anyone here doubts DD's chances against LV. He is 
the "only one he (LV) ever feared", the greatest wizard of the age, 
and certainly, more powerful that Harry, whose magical powers 
would "not even register" in the boat, compared to DD's. Further, it 
was DD who could get through all of LV's obstacles, something LV 
thought none but the "exceptionally greatest" could do. We have to 
keep in mind that while Harry has great stores of love, he doesn't 
have anything of the skill, power, or knowledge of magic that DD 
has.  And I don't doubt that DD possesses this wild card power of 
love, either. 

 So when the two of them are in the cave, why does DD insist that 
his own life is less valuable than Harry's? Harry doesn't _have_ to 
be the one to destroy LV, if both Harry and DD choose to ignore the 
prophecy. DD could be the one to engage LV directly, while Harry 
merely helped in the treasure hunt for the horcruxes. What do you 
think?


 AA