Voldemort killed personally?

[hickengruendler]

No: HPFGUIDX 157206

 
> 
> Mike responds:
> 
> Aye, but therein lies the rub. As Geoff alluded to above, Tom 
didn't 
> perform the actual magic, he didn't say the spell to kill Myrtle. 
No 
> magical spell was used to kill Myrtle. 

Hickengruendler:

This argument doesn't convince me. Nowwhere it is said in Canon, that 
any magic needs to be done for your soul to split. It splits when you 
murder somebody. When Voldemort poisoned Mrs Smith, his soul 
splitted, because he commited murder. He has to do some spell to make 
the Horcrux, but this is after the killing (and could probably be 
done anytime once your soul is split). His soul splits anyway, with 
or without any spell. I agree with Carol. The Basilisk is IMO nothing 
but the murder weapon. Voldemort killed Myrtle. He killed her as if 
he used a dagger and stabbed her to death. Just that the "dagger" was 
a magical creature. 
 
> Mike again:
> 
> I don't see how you work out that "Kill her!" *operates* exactly 
the 
> same way as "AK". One is a command to another entity, the second is 
> spell casting which, we have been told, requires powerful magical 
> abilities behind it. Besides, "Kill him!" doesn't ensure the 
desired 
> outcome, whereas a properly cast AK (unless it's cast at Harry) 
does 
> seem to do the trick every time, doesn't it?

Hickengruendler:

I still don't see much of a difference. If you say "kill him" to a 
dangerous monster, that is under your control, I would argue that the 
outcome is pretty much ensured. Admittingly, the attack could still 
fail, but an AK doesn't have to hit, either. Many AK's in the DoM 
missed their aim. So I think the first has as good a chance to 
succeed as the later.
 
Hickengruendler