Gone a while - question about Snape

[melhersheybar]

No: HPFGUIDX 154363

--- In HPforGrownups at yahoogroups.com, "zgirnius" <zgirnius at ...> 
wrote:
>Mhersheybar wrote:
Snip>
> > So I don't get it.  Is it that there was a gap in time between 
when 
> > Snape overheard the prophesy and when Wormtail turned traitor, 
and 
> > during that time Snape went and repented to DD?  But that still 
> > doesn't work, because DD makes it sound like it was James and 
> Lily's 
> > actual deaths that caused Snape to feel remorse, so there is no 
way 
> > he could have already been at Hogwarts when VD fell.
> SNIP
>> zgirnius:
> Now, it seems to me that Voldemort would have been in a position 
to 
> interpret the prophecy within a few months of Harry's birth-once 
July 
> 31 passed, all he needed to do was figure out which children were 
> born 'as the seventh month died', and further marrow it down to 
those 
> whose parents had 'thrice defied him'. This would leave about a 
year 
> between Voldemort's interpretation, and the death of the Potters, 
> during which time Snaep coudl have learned of the interpretation, 
and 
> decided to approach Dumbledore.
> 

Mhershey again:
Ah, okay.  So at some point after Harry is born, Snape learns that 
VD is after the Potters because of the info. Snape had given VD(and 
we know from Canon that the Potters knew they were being targeted), 
then, Snape goes to DD, says he feels bad about the whole thing, and 
gets a job at Hogwarts.  In my mind, the whole "Snape 
overhearing/Wormtail revealing/Potters dying" occurred in a span of 
a few days, I overlooked the fact that Harry was not born at the 
time the prophecy was made.  Thanks for clearing up what has 
seriously confused me.

Mhershey