Who calls Voldemort "Lord"

[Geoff Bannister]

No: HPFGUIDX 149666

--- In HPforGrownups at yahoogroups.com, "deborahhbbrd" <hubbada at ...> wrote:
>
> Darqali speculates, amidst vast snipped acreage of good stuff:
> 
> <<I noted that Trelawney was an exception  in the {supposedly} "good" 
> Wizarding camp, in that when she made her two "prophecies" concerning 
> LV, she used the term "The Dark Lord"  {his *followers* term} and 
> nothing else.  This is very curious, if she is not a LV follower, or 
> a Death Eater, or a sympathizer.>>
> 
> But in my little logical mind, it wasn't Trelawney actually doing it.
> She was out of control, not present in her own head, at the time of
> her two prophecies. So presumably she was channelling in some way.

Geoff:
This does in fact raise a question in my mind. Where do prophecies come from? Why are 
they sent?

In Christian and Jewish terms, prophecies are sent to believers. There are numerous 
examples in the Bible. But in the Wizarding World?

The fact that Dumbledore heard the first and Harry the second almost suggests that they 
are sent to the "good" side to warn them and that characters like Voldemort only get hold 
of them because they hear second-hand that they have been revealed.

What do the rest of you guys out there think?

I prophesy that this might start a new thread.
:-)