Why did Snape call Lily a 'Mudblood'?/ Drama triangle

[pippin_999]

No: HPFGUIDX 177871


> 
> Montavilla47:
> I've been wondering about that since HBP--specifically, how James
> would have learned a non-verbal spell that Snape would never
> in a million years teach him.
> 
> Along with the inconsistency of SWM taking place in fifth year, when
> the spell is written down in a sixth year text.  If we didn't have Snape
> specifically tell Harry that he invented the spell, the natural conclusion
> would be that he obsessed over the spell after SWM, and the 
> mass of scribbling and crossouts was him reverse-engineering the 
> spell a year later.

Pippin:
Snape, like Hermione, needn't limit himself to assigned reading.
Considering that house full of books at Spinner's End, there's no reason
he wouldn't have read and learned all his mother's Hogwarts texts, which
would also be a likely explanation for how he learned so many curses. As
for how the spell became popular, I think it's much more likely that
Snape taught it to his Slytherin friends, some of whom had the bad
habit of mouthing spells that were supposed to be non-verbal.

Pippin