Explain This Passage

[juli17 at aol.com]

No: HPFGUIDX 180529

 
Carol wrote:

I think,  though I can't be sure, that Wizards in general (whether or
not they  believe in pure-blood supremacy) would consider a Half-Blood
to have  Wizarding blood and therefore would not count that person as a
Muggle in  the bloodline. However, that person's Muggle or Muggle-born
parent would  count as a Muggle grandparent, preventing the child of a
Half-Blood and a  Pure-blood from being considered a Pure-Blood himself
or herself. However,  if that child were to marry a pure-blood, his or
her children could count  themselves as pure-bloods if they were so
inclined because they would have  no Muggle )or Muggle-born) grandparents.



Julie:
This is how I understand it too. And isn't this how it pretty much worked  in 
Nazi Germany when it came to identifying Jews--if you had a Jewish  
grandparent,
i.e. you were of at least one-quarter Jewish descent, then you were a  "Jew." 
(Please
correct me if I'm wrong, and I may well be!) 
 
So in the WW you aren't pureblood if your blood is "tainted" by the  presence
of a Muggle or Muggleborn within two generations. So it seems to  me. Though
I'm not sure JKR ever specified such, I did get the  impression she was in 
fact
alluding to Nazi Germany and Aryan supremacy with the whole  Pureblood
supremacy issue.
 
Julie 



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