Two Plot Problems

[zfshiruba]

No: HPFGUIDX 187605

--- In HPforGrownups at yahoogroups.com, "rlevatter" <rlevatter at ...> wrote:
>
> 1. Sectumsempra:
> 
> When first used by Harry, inadvertently on Malfoy, Snape controls the damage easily with counterspells and tells Malfoy there will likely be no lasting damage with dittany applied.
> 
> Yet when the same spell is used by Snape, inadvertently hitting George, the damage (a severed ear) is  irreversible, because it was "dark magic".
> 
> Why was it irreversible dark magic when Snape, a member of Order of the Phoenix, does it but not when Harry does it?

A lot of the spells in the wizarding world seem to depend on a certain amount of visualization, especially in first uses, e.g. Accio Firebolt. It may also have an intent requirement that Harry doesn't know about. (Moody's comment about the 4th years' Avada Kedavras, Harry's attempt at Crucio.) When Harry uses the spell, he has no real idea what it's going to do, so the spell isn't at strong as it could be. Harry may even have an incorrect visual of what the spell will do; the first time I read the incantation, I thought of Rictusempra. 

Snape, on the other hand, knows exactly what its going to do; he invented it. Likewise, Snape is cautious and paranoid enough that I am certain he created counterspells for his own use and didn't right them down. It's Snape's spell; of course he can counter it. Also, it may not be irreversible dark magic so much as unknown dark magic; it's hard to cure what you can't diagnose.

zfshiruba