Re Apparate to Possess

confusinglyso pjcousins at confusinglyso.yahoo.invalid
Sat Feb 19 23:45:11 UTC 2005


Barry Arrowsmith         Kneasy
"Lyn J. Mangiameli"      kumayama  
"nkafkafi"               Neri
"pippin_999"             Pippin
 "susiequsie23"          Siriusly Snapey Susan

Thank you all for your interpretations of GH.
This started out trialing the idea that Possession is very focused 
Apparition, with its associated risk of Splinching. One of my 
starting assumptions was that Harry had been Possessed at GH,
using the 'mind' link as evidence. However, following the MoM 
Possession, which I suggested may be 'Unsplinching', Dumbledore 
seems happy to look at Harry. Do you all think the Voldy essence has 
gone, the 'mind' link broken, or was Dumbledore 'safe' because Voldy 
had other distractions, consoling Bellatrix, excuses to make to 
remaining supporters, etc ? Harry was very angry in Dumbledore's 
study, yet there was no LV inspired notion to attack DD.

The intelligent, logical view I get from your posts is that Voldy 
went to GH to absorb 'the power', which is assumed would be achieved 
by Possession. I agree that makes the most sense, yet at his 
rebirthing he told his gathered Death Eaters that he had tried to 
kill Harry. And, at the rebirthing, he again had opportunity to 
absorb the power, yet did not, even though he could touch Harry 
without harm to himself.

There also seems to be a number of permutations of events at GH.
It is accepted that James was killed first.
Then Lily is killed. Here's where the permutations start:-
1a) she is killed by direct intent
1b) she is killed because she intercepts green light meant for Harry
1c) she is killed by intercepting Possession of Harry ???

2a) attempted Possession of Harry, LV vapourised, house collapses
2b) attempted AK of Harry, bounce, LV vapourised, house collapses
2c) attempted other curse, bounce, LV vapourised, house collapses
2d) repelled Possession, (couldn't touch Harry), then as 2b or 2c.

The logical theory that LV was after 'the power' and needed to 
Possess Harry to get it should eliminate 1b, and 2b. 1c seems very 
unlikely, yet LV Possessed Harry in front of Dumbledore, (this 
strengthens my view that there was no vulnerable LV body remaining 
in MoM atrium during Possession)

The logical theory must choose 1a and 2a. If Harry had witnessed 1a, 
surely he should have been able to see the Thestrals from year 3 
(year 2 via Anglia).

I doubt a failed Possession could lead to a house collapse so is 1a 
then 2d the order of events ? Yet 2a is the only answer to 
satisfy 'Priori Incantatem'.
That is, if Possession is wandless, as I think Apparition is 
wandless.

Another attempt at explaining a trivial point :-
Godric's Hollow destroyed by wayward magic. Maybe the Potter home at 
GH was held up by magic, rather like The Burrow seems to be, and a 
disturbance in the magic field caused by the repelled Possession or
AK! brought about its destruction. Another thought, but much less 
likely, because the house was under Secret Keeper status, as was 12 
Grimmauld Place which appeared and disappeared, the magic influence 
making it invisible may have mixed dangerously with 
whatever 'bounced'.

confusinglyso

Phil

'I expect what you're not aware of would fill several books, 
Dursley', growled Moody.       same here, 5 so far   :-)







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