Voldemort pronunciation
sineala
einnes at cats.ucsc.edu
Wed Dec 12 21:26:22 UTC 2001
No: HPFGUIDX 31428
Newbie here, delurking, and I hope I'm doing this right...
One explanation for the presence or absence of the final "t"
in "Voldemort" that I don't think anyone has brought up yet is that
it might have something to do with how English is pronounced in
general.
I haven't heard any of the audiobooks yet, so I can't check to see if
this is indeed true, but, in my (Californian) dialect of American
English, and I believe in some dialects of British English as well,
there is a very common process of glottalizing voiceless stops at the
ends of words (possibly syllables as well, but definitely at the ends
of words). What this means is that in normal speech, the ps, ts, and
ks at the ends of words are pronounced as glottal stops. Your mouth
is in the position it would be to say these sounds, but the sounds
are not actually produced -- only a glottal stop is. This would be
an "unreleased" or "glottalized" sound.
I've noticed that it's very hard for English speakers to notice this
process, or to notice most glottal stops at all, like the ones
beginning vowel-initial words. "Voldemort" ends in a t, and is
subject to the rule I just mentioned. So maybe what people are really
saying is a syllable [mor?], where [?] is a glottal stop, and we're
just not hearing it. The speaker would know that the sound there was
supposed to be "t," and if they were articulating carefully, as
Hagrid no doubt was when saying the name to Harry, they would
pronounce a very audible "t".
Like I said, I haven't heard the audiobooks yet, and I don't know as
much linguistics as I would like, so it's possible that I'm
completely wrong, but I just thought I'd throw the idea out there...
--Elena
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