Why Latin?

[eccleston at clara.co.uk]

No: HPFGUIDX 21351

> 
> 
> > > I'll leave the "imperio" for someone else.
> > 
> > As I said yesterday, I really believe 'imperio' is intended to be
> > a 1st person singular present active indicative, like 'crucio' or
> > 'accio', with an -i- introduced by analogy.  Analyzing it as a
> > dative or ablative noun makes little to no sense.  (But in form,
> > it could be that, sure.)
> 


It's funny, isn't it, how we want our words to have a power and 
potential beyond that which we know they have. Perhaps thats why we 
so readily accept latin-esque words and want them to be "magic". I 
think it is the same with Tolkein, Ursula Le Guin etc. Why is it, do 
you think, that it tends to be Latin that is used in this way?

Steve


eccleston at clara.co.uk