"Neither can Live"
sueeeyqbong
sue at simiant.com
Sat Jul 26 18:52:28 UTC 2003
No: HPFGUIDX 73317
--- In HPforGrownups at yahoogroups.com, "Danger Mouse"
<dangermousehq at h...> wrote:
> So confused... I was re-reading various bits of OoP just now, and
spent a few minutes staring at the prophecy...
>
> Here it is again for those without books:
> `The one with the power to vanquish the Dark Lord approaches. born
to those who have thrice defied him, born as the seventh month
dies . and the Dark Lord will mark him as his equal, but he will
have power the Dark Lord knows not . and either must die at the hand
of the other for neither can live while the other survives . the one
with the power to vanquish the Dark Lord will be born as the seventh
month dies .'
>
> What came to mind was the "neither can live while the other
survives" bit... Ermmm... aren't they both living while the other
survives? If it was "neither can die," then okey-dokey, I'd get
that. It'd be saying that they'd both have to die for the world to
be rid of Voldemort... but... it doesn't. So what is this phrase
saying?
>
> -Dan
>
Now me (Sueeeyqbong) :
something else which just occurred to me about the prophecy...why
are there elipses (the dots ) between each section of the prophcy.
Elipses are usually used in english to denote a pause or that
something has been left out of the text. I can't think of ay other
reason to use them. Now I realise that they may be there simply to
denote that Trelawney paused whilst delivering the prophecy...but
why would she do that, and, more importantly, why would JKR
deliberately include a pause in the prophecy? It seems to me that
there has to be some significance behind the pauses.
And, if the elipses show that there was more to the prophecy than
the bits we heard, what was in the bits we missed? It's a long shot,
but what if both Neville AND Harry were being referred to in the
prophecy, and the speculative missing bits made this clear? That to
me might explain the otherwise awkward semantics of the phrasing of
the prophecy...the first part refers to 'the one with the power to
defeat the dark lord...born as the seventh month dies' and the
second part mentions 'the dark lord will mark him as his equal...he
will have power the dark lord knows not' - is it conceivable that
the first part refers to one person (Neville?) and the second part
refers to an entirely different person (Harry?), but we don't hear
the bit behind the elipses which explains this??? And in this way,
both Neville and Harry will play a part in the downfall of
Voldemort?
This might also explain the awkard use of 'either' and 'other'
and 'neither' and 'other' in the final bit of the prophecy, which
again, IMHO, just doesn't make good grammar. What if 'either'
and 'neither' refers to Harry AND Neville and the 'other' is
Voldemort ie there'd be a situation where two (H and N) faced one
(V)? This isn't very well articulated, I know, so apologies for the
woolly argument, but I just had to get this out before I forgot it
again. That happens a lot, sadly!
Best wishes all,
Sueeeyqbong
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