JKR cheat with the prophecy - Time Will Tell

[Steve]

No: HPFGUIDX 125006


--- In HPforGrownups at yahoogroups.com, "Julia" <jolka55 at p...> wrote:
> 
> Julia again:
> 
> ...
> I think you didn't understand me. IMO there couldn't have been any 
> chance for Mrs Longbottom to do it because of the part of 
> prophecy "and DL will mark him as his equal" (which btw is BEFORE 
> the statement about the powers of the baby - ... so it can indicate 
> that the choice will be made before the sacrifice. This part didn't 
> refer to Neville and will never do -  Neville has NEVER been 
> Voldemort's equal (halfblood) so Alice couldn't make her sacrifice 
> because Voldemort wasn't predicted to be after Neville.
>
> I didn't question Alice's abilities or powers I'm sure that if she 
> were Lily she would have done the same BUT she never got the 
> chance!!!! Neville was NEVER meant as a target.
> 
> Julia


bboyminn:

The problem is that you are making the same /assumption/ that
Dumbledore made. You are assuming you know why Voldemort went after
Harry first. 

It's entirely possible it was the (figuratively) flip of a coin;
heads-Harry first, tails-Neville second, or it could be that the
opportunity, via Peter-the Secret Keeper, to attack the Potters came
up first, so Big-V attacked Harry before Neville. 

There is nothing but Dumbledore's assumption that Voldemort
consciously choose Harry, it may have been random chance, coincidence,
or bad luck. 

Also note that Dumbledore says the it's NOT the mark on Harry's
forehead that /marks/ him, it's Voldemort's choice. 

In addition, since the Prophecy plays out over many many years, it's
nothing but a guess as to whether one specific event actually is the
fulfillment of the vague language of the Prophecy. It's entirely
possible that somewhere in the next two books, Voldemort will somehow
mark Neville as an equal. Keep in mind that in Brit-Speak, 'mark'
doesn't always mean to place a physical mark upon. It also means 'to
make note of' as in 'mark my words' which means 'make a note of my
words'. 

So, the whole fulfillment of the Prophecy is based on assumptions and
best-guess interpretations. Some say that Harry's first encounter
fulfills much of the Prophecy; Harry is chosen, Harry is given power
that the Dark Lord doesn't understand, Harry is marked, the Dark Lord
is vanguished. Of course, others believe that many of those events are
yet to come. So, the first interpretation implies that Harry has
already vanguished Voldemort, given that apparent fulfillment,
should/could/would Harry vanquish him again?  The Prophecy doesn't say
Harry will vanquish the Dark Lord twice. So, is the /Vanquishing/ the
Prophecy speaks of in the past, or is it yet to come? Is the TRUE
prophecied /marking/ in the past or yet to come? 

It begs the question, does the prophecy force the future to fit the
prophecy, or do we take life-events and through assumptions,
interpretations, and best-guesses force them to fit the prophecy?

Only time will tell ...or will it?

Steve/bboyminn