Wand Theories WAS: Re: Spare Wands

[Chris]

No: HPFGUIDX 132075

<snip>
> 
> I'd love to hear anybody else's thoughts on why people don't seem to 
> have spares and why having one might be taboo.
> 
> Siriusly Snapey Susan

   I would couple this question with: Why can anyone use someone 
else's wand? Here's my take: Remember what Ollivander said in SS: "The 
wand chooses the wizard remember..." (p.85 Scholastic US PB). So, 
according to this, we know that each individual wand is unique, and it 
chooses the wizard, not the other way around. How many wands did Harry 
go through without event before he found his, which emitted red and 
gold sparks from the end? A lot, according to the description. So, 
from this we can conclude that one wizard is destined for one wand. 
But of course, there is a problem with this conclusion (bear with me.)
   Obviously, there is more than one wand available for a person. Ron 
breaks his in CoS, but then it is replaced in PoA. So, Ron had more 
than one wand destined for him, right? So, based on that I offer this: 
A wizard can use only ONE WAND AT A TIME. Perhaps once they choose a 
wand, a wizard shares some sort of magical bond with that wand, a bond 
that remains unbroken until the wand itself is broken. Perhaps the 
breaking of Hagrid's wand at his expulsion was more than symbolic, and 
also a reason that he can perform only a little magic with the 
remnants in his umbrella.
   IMHO, the wand is more a focal point of the magic inside the 
wizard, and requires this bond with the wizard in order to even work. 
Now where the theory breaks down for most people is: Some wizards use 
others' wands to perform magic, not necessarily their own wands. Ah, 
but I have a rebuttal and examples...two of them in fact:

(1) Peter uses LV's wand to kill Cedric and to perform the ritual to 
raise LV.

(2) Neville uses his dad's old wand up until it is broken in the MoM.

(3) Neville cannot cast a spell with Hermione's wand.

   Now, to explain the first two: Peter and Neville obviously use 
someone else's wands to cast their respective spells. Should they be 
able to perform magic with a wand not their own? My answer is this: 
they are able to because the owners of the wands have let them. 
Neville's wand was his dad's, obviously returned to Neville's 
grandmother once driven crazy by the Lestranges. The bond Frank had 
with the wand was broken the moment his mind was, and Gran passed it 
on to Neville. Thus he can use it.
   Peter uses Voldemort's wand with his permission. Everything Peter 
does is as ordered by LV. Thus, Peter can use LV's wand, since it is 
sanctioned by LV himself.
   Now we come to number 3. A lot of people will say Neville could not 
speak the correct words to cast the spell, due to his nose being 
broken. I disagree that this is the reason. Remember, a lot of magic 
can be performed with or without a spoken incantation, all it requires 
is the intent of the wizard performing it. Neville intended to cast 
stupefy every time he yelled "Stubefy." The intent was there, and the 
spell should have been cast regardless of the spoken word. However it 
wasn't. My theory to explain this is that Hermione NEVER gave him 
permission to use the wand, therefore the bond was never transferred, 
so to speak. What does everyone think of this theory?
   Regardless, these things could explain the absence of the spare 
wand. Just my opinion.

Chris
*afraid to get into semantical argument about time travel, as he has 
also studied physics intesively*