Why does Snape wants DADA job if it cursed? WAS: Re: Snape again

[dumbledore11214]

No: HPFGUIDX 148902

> > Alla:
> > 
> > So, basically you are saying that  the curse will work even if 
> Snape 
> > is not Voldemort's man anymore, sort of like "Imperio" through 
Dark 
> > Mark? Just curious.
> 
> Ceridwen:
> Not like Imperio, but like Imperio.  Not like Imperio in the sense 
> that it doesn't compel the person outside of their will.  As 
zgirnius 
> said, Lupin was understandably unsettled enough to leave the 
castle 
> without his Wolfsbane.  He didn't resist, thinking 'OMG, I've got 
to 
> get that potion!'  He was compelled, which is what the Imperio 
does, 
> but through circumstances, not through active agent.  If Snape is 
> DDM, the circumstances on the tower would have compelled him to 
> perform the AK for whatever reasons (so DD wouldn't be savaged and 
> die slowly at Greyback's claws? or whatever).  Since Snape has the 
> DM, the curse may be more potent.
> 
> *(snipping)*

Alla:

Right that is pretty much what I thought - that in your scenario the 
curse works sort of like Imperio through circumstances, but I am 
still unclear on how the curse will work in your scenario upon the 
person without Dark Mark. Is in your scenario "brings the worst 
secret or the worst part of their natures and oust DADA teachers" 
still true?

Are you theorising in essense that if curse is unable to "force" 
or "compel" DADA teacher directly or indirectly to kill Dumbledore, 
then the curse still "outs" the person? Basically is it EITHER/OR 
scenario? Because it seems that in Snape scenario curse did both ( 
if we assume that this is curse's doing of course :))

What I am trying to say that it seems logical to me that IF your 
scenario is correct or the way I see it, the curse should not be 
able to work AT ALL upon someone who is not wearing DADA mark or who 
is in his heart faithful to Voldemort. Makes sense?

It would be funny if what LL said earlier would turn true, but 
partially - namely all previous DADA teachers left not because of 
the curse and for the first time curse worked was on Snape and why 
because Snape had the potential, the intent and/or Dark mark to make 
the curse recognise him as true Voldemort's man /or simply compelled 
him through Dark Mark.


>> Ceridwen:
<SNIP>
> And, Snape does admit that Dumbledore is a powerful wizard.  Just 
as 
> DD admits that LV is powerful.  It's dangerous to delude oneself.  
I 
> think Jen has it right in thinking that Snape, like Harry, 
believed 
> DD could pull this one out of the fire.  He always has before, 
> right?  Why not now?  I don't see how this respect could mean only 
> DDM!Snape, since even enemies can have respect and admiration for 
> competency.  But it has a bigger BANG for DDM!Snape, since he must 
> have thought that everything would work out... Surprise, it didn't!

Alla:

Oh, of course not - this respect was shown in neutral context, it 
could EASILY be Evil Snape too :-). I was just trying to say that IF 
we get DD!M Snape this could be used to support after the fact 
Snape's respect of Dumbledore in a good way, if that makes any kind 
of sense. :-)

Just another example IMO how one piece of canon can be intepreted in 
TWO opposite ways and both interpretations would be correct till 
book 7 comes out.

JMO,

Alla