VA/H=Mx13+RP? Snape's Culpability?

[Renee]

No: HPFGUIDX 147352

--- In HPforGrownups at yahoogroups.com, "Jen Reese" <stevejjen at e...> wrote:
>
> Carol: 
> 
> "And in the limited time available, he could not have come to his own 
> tentative understanding of what the partial Prophecy might mean, much 
> less anticipate how Voldemort would interpret it and choose to act on 
> it. Canon *does* support that interpretation--unless you choose to 
> believe that Dumbledore is wrong, in which case my arguments will 
> continue to fall on deaf ears."

Jen R.:
> 
> So far most people don't seem to believe Dumbledore said exactly what 
> he meant and meant what he said: Snape knew *a* child was involved 
> when he overheard the prophecy. Not Harry, *a* child. Why is it so 
> hard to take Dumbledore's words at face value here, so difficult to 
> believe Snape understood the part of the prophecy he overheard but 
> didn't know who it referred to? That his remorse came AFTER he learned 
> how Voldemort interpreted the prophecy to mean he would target the 
> Potters?

Renee:
I, for one, believe DD meant what he said to Harry, because I assume
this is quite simply what Snape told DD: that he did realise it was
about a child, but just didn't know which particular child it would be
before Voldemort chose the son of James and Lily Potter. It's even
possible that Snape added his own interpretation when he told
Voldemort about the prophecy, and that Voldemort adopted it and never
considered any other possibility. 

 
> I'm pretty much a DDM!Snape person (with some wavering) and believe 
> it's perfectly possible Snape understood *generally* the information 
> he was delivering to Voldemort because such a scenario could tell us 
> more about Snape's characterization and arc: At that time in his life 
> he may have put great value on the sort of thing Draco mentioned 
> valuing in HBP--glory, honor above other DE's, praise from Voldemort. 
> If so, then Voldemort's interpretation caused a monumental shift in 
> Snape. Before the revelation Snape was not concerned by who would be 
> affected even if it was a child, but after Voldemort's interpretation 
> he was MOVED to feel great remorse, a signal that whatever humanity he 
> may have submerged to serve Voldemort had opened up inside him again. 
> 
> I think that's a valid interpretation even if people don't agree with 
> it. 

Renee:
So do I. But if we assume that Snape initially wasn't concerned about
the possible fate of a baby, we get a glimpse of the "deeply horrible"
person from one of JKR's interviews. That's why I tend towards a Snape
who is DDM, because he's LID. Not in the sense that his debt towards
James is binding and leaves him no choice but to protect Harry - this
would go against the idea of free choice that is so important in the
Potterverse; also, Wormtail would have been compelled to protect Harry
at the end of GoF, which he obviously wasn't. 

IMO, Snape believes in the hold that such wizarding debts have on the
indebted. It's a matter of honour to him. He is horrified that his
attempts to absolve the debt - turning to Dumbledore, trying to warn
James - have gone awry, and that instead of saving James, he has
indirectly caused his death and that of his wife. Hence the remorse.
I'm not entirely sure, though, that this is a sign of (re)emerged
humanity and redemption. I have to say that I don't get the impression
his remorse has turned him into a better man. He hasn't let go of his
hatred of James and even directs it towards James's son, who has never
done him any harm (except perhaps to his ego, by surviving without
Snape's help - more than once). He still hasn't absolved his debt,
though, and that is what binds him to DD's side, and thereby that of
Harry. 

I'm not a native speaker, but does feeling remorse also imply being
contrite? Is it merely by accident that JKR used the former and not
the latter?

Renee