[HPforGrownups] Draco as Victim in GoF (was: Re: The Huge overreactions...)
Magpie
belviso at attglobal.net
Fri Mar 31 02:08:03 UTC 2006
No: HPFGUIDX 150295
> Carol, who still sees Draco teetering on the edge and not yet
> converted to DDB!Draco
Magpie:
Oh, I don't think he's converted to DDB in that sense either--I just meant
in that scene he was still connected to DD, more than the DEs, after they
arrived. I agree he still could fall any number of ways in the future. I
think DD had an effect on him there, not that he's converted to anything.
Carol:
The only adult who has any way of helping him is Snape, to whom he owes his
life whether there's a formal Life Debt or not (and I don't think there is).
Magpie:
Okay, this definitely seems like a possibility for the next book, that Snape
will be helping Draco by hiding him or convincing Voldemort not to kill him.
He'd be physically protecting him, helping to keep him alive and free. But
that isn't redemption.
Carol:
If Snape is DDM!, and if he takes his obligation to help Draco seriously
(like a godfather, as I pointed out in another post), he can help put Draco
on the right path. Neither Narcissa nor Bellatrix is likely to do that. So
unless he turns himself in to the Order, goes into hiding, and disappears
from the story, he has to either understand what Snape was really doing and
why and accept his values in place of loyalty to the undeserving Voldemort,
or arrive at those conclusions on his own despite being seventeen years old
and a wanted fugitive.
Magpie:
But that's my question: how is Snape going to help put him on the right path
and what does it mean that Draco will simply exchange loyalty to Voldemort
for Snape's values? How is Snape going to do this? How is Draco not going
to be coming to his own conclusions? Is Snape going to be sitting him down
and telling him about right from wrong? How is he adopting Snape's values?
What are Snape's values--hasn't Snape been teaching Draco values by example
for six years now?
Presumably Draco is going to come to learn that the Snape he has known for
years--the one who's a DE and was trying to steal his glory (since what
other motivation is there for a DE other than competing for Voldemort's
favor?)--is false and Snape has really always been working for Dumbledore
and not after any dark glory. But how does that lead to actual redemption
where Dumbledore's actions and words and Draco's own experiences couldn't?
How is it different than Draco coming to his own conclusion based on
information and events he experiences--which would include stuff related to
Snape?
And above all, perhaps, how does this happen in a way that leads to a boy
becoming a man and growing up and this generation healing the last, rather
than leading to separating the men from the boys, and children letting
adults handle things, and a stunted morality that leaves moral decisions to
someone else and the past generation continuing on without handing over the
reins? Obviously I don't expect you to write book VII for me to explain how
it works, I just don't think I'm seeing what you mean about what Snape would
be needed to do.
Carol responds:
I agree that *if* this curse or hex is Sectum Sempra, Severus did a
remarkable job of controlling it under the circumstances and given his
emotional state.
Magpie:
What's gained by this not being Sectumsempra? I mean, when I read it I
never thought it was anything else--I actually mistakently thought we
already knew the name of the curse Snape used against James so when I read
"Sectumsempra" and "for enemies" I said, "Oh, it's that razor blade spell
Snape used on James." I guess I just logically thought that if Levicorpus
was the upsidedown spell of course the mystery spell Harry had seen before
too--JKR tends to work that way.
In the Pensieve scene that razor blade spell is nasty and seems to work just
the way Sectumsempra does. Snape flicks his wand and Harry waves his, and
that seems to account for the differences in effect. We don't know that
Snape didn't do a counterspell later on James (for a smaller cut the
counterspell might be less elaborate) or that James didn't use dittany any
more than we know James' lacking a scar means it couldn't be Sectumsempra (I
would think even a regular razor-blade cut without the "sempra" part would
scar), but it seems like the simplest solution: two spells from the same
book made up by the same boy in the same scene with basically the same
effects as another spell from the same book by the same boy. It seems like
the whole reason that spell even appears in OotP is to show it before Harry
uses it--that tends to be JKR's style. The only thing gained from assuming
the spell used in the Pensieve isn't Sectumsempra that comes to my mind
immediately is that it puts more distance between Snape and the incredibly
violent spell from HBP and adds a self-defense note to it. It suggests
Snape didn't make a really bad spell until Sirius tried to kill him. To me
the spell looks deadly in both cases.
-m
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