perhaps naive newbie question about book III ending

[Katie]

No: HPFGUIDX 176182

--- In HPforGrownups at yahoogroups.com, "Dale" <stittdale at ...> wrote:
>
> > ***Katie:
> <snip>
> > So, basically, a plot device, but a well-supported one, seeing as it
> > was very clear that H/H from the future "cannot be seen!!",
> > according to Dumbledore. This is, incidentally, usually a component
> > of any time-travel story = messing too much with the past can have
> > grave consequences.
> 
> Dale:
> I agree on the plot device aspect.  But they were seen.  Harry saw
> himself and that actually saved him.
>
***Katie again:
That's very true. However, that was something that could not have been 
foreseen before they used the Time-Turner to go back. Even Harry didn't 
realize it at first. So, they couldn't have gone back with the 
*purpose* of being seen, because that would have been against the rules 
of time travel. The fact that Harry *was* seen by himself was only 
excused by the fact that the Harry from the past *thought* he was 
seeing his father. Had the Harry from the past actually realized he was 
seeing himself, that could have had some negative repercussions.

So, even though Harry DID see himself, he:
1 - Didn't *know* it was himself.
2 - Didn't go back with the *intention* of contacting anyone directly 
or being seen, which was the original question in this thread - why 
didn't they just tell Lupin to take his potion? They couldn't, because 
they weren't *supposed* to be seen. The fact that Harry was seen was 
not intended.

Katie