Magical Theory (WAS Re: Krum's Intellect/Father Figures(Karkaroff as Headmaster) (WAS: Snape&Lucius)
Ronin_47
Ronin_47 at comcast.net
Fri Feb 9 21:31:11 UTC 2007
No: HPFGUIDX 164815
All of this talk about Victor Krum's accent and dialect, etc. has gotten me to wondering....
Throughout the series, there seems to be a very defined way of pronunciation when casting a spell, as well as a specific wand movement. Spells seem to have various origins, but most seem to be based on Latin. So, given these intricacies, how can certain schools cast certain spells such as "Wingardium Leviosa"?
That's Leviooosa, not Leviosaaa.
Could it be the intention behind the words that is more important? Or, perhaps a visualization? Then why make such a big deal about pronuciation? I would think that non-verbal spells would be much easier if language was not a factor.
Also, if the PERSON is magical, why is the wand so necessary to cast spells? Harry can cast accidentally when he becomes emotional and Dumbledore seems to be able to cast some spells without a wand (perhaps using old magic). But mostly, wizards and witches without wands are helpless.
Shouldn't they be able to learn and control their power without the use of a wand at some point?
I expect the Ministry of Magic, Department of Magical Education and Practical Application of Magic to launch a full investifation. lol
Cheers,
Ronin
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