Dark Lord? and Harry's First Kiss

[Horst or Rebecca J. Bohner]

> Only Death Eaters call Voldemort "the Dark Lord", so why does Snape
continue to address him thusly? <

I took this as evidence that Snape is still working as a double agent (using Occlumency to hide his true motives and feelings from Voldemort) and therefore deliberately keeps up with old DE habits and terms.  His attitude after Harry's accusation seemed to be less of an "Oh no!  You've found me out!" and more of a "Yes, I do refer to him that way. Your point?"

And re the question of why we didn't see the kiss between Harry and Cho -- I
assumed it was because a) a lot of readers didn't particularly want to see
it; and b) JKR is saving up Harry's first really good kiss for someone else.
Who that will be, though, I can't say anymore.  But that's all right, because after this book I don't particularly care anymore, either...
--
R.J. Anderson
http://rjanderson.blogspot.com
http://synaesthete7.livejournal.com



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