Satellite!Harry
justcarol67
justcarol67 at yahoo.com
Tue Jan 11 23:30:45 UTC 2005
No: HPFGUIDX 121710
Carol earlier:
> Interesting theory <snip>. But there's a simpler explanation. Maybe
Baby Harry received some but not all of Voldemort's powers (the only
one he's displayed so far is Parseltongue) and Voldemort didn't lose
his powers per se but only the ability to use them.
>
> Snow:
>
> Thank you for your response, Carol, but how would you account for
Voldemort's quote that "only one power remained to me. I could
possess the bodies of others." Is this just the uttering of a former
vapor-self who was unable to use his abilities
if so why is Voldemort
capable of using a power (parceltongue) which we know has been
permanently transferred to Harry? If Harry is in possession of the
ability, transferred to him through Voldemort, to speak parceltongue,
how can baby!Voldy or any form of Voldemort speak parceltongue when it
is no longer in his possession, unless he has access to it?
> Voldemort's powers are very much alive in Harry and accessible
through Harry even when he was Vapormort but Harry's scar response to
the use of the powers Voldemort is accessing only grew with
Voldemort's physical formation. It was only when Voldy became Baby!
mort (a real physical substance) that Harry was capable of actually
viewing Voldemort's schemes through his accessed powers, which
intensified Harry's scar pain.
>
Carol responds:
I guess my explanation wasn't clear. I think that the powers reside in
Voldemort's spirit but he's unable to use them when he doesn't have a
body because he can't speak or use a wand. (He can still possess other
beings because this power doesn't require a body.) When he possesses a
person he can use his powers through that person-- possessed!Quirrell
is presumably stronger than Quirrell in his normal state. When
Voldemort has a body, even a baby's body, he can use the powers still
within him that require the use of a voice or a wand. I don't think
Parseltongue "permanently resides" in Harry. I think that the two now
*share* that power, and probably other powers that haven't been
identified yet, for example Legilimency. Voldemort "marked [Harry] as
his equal" by giving him access to some of his own powers. That
doesn't mean that Voldemort himself permanently lost them. He simply
*couldn't use them* because he had no body.
I do agree that Harry has become more sensitive to the pain in his
scar, or rather, the pain is more intense and he's more sensitive to
Voldemort's moods (pretty much a given in OoP) but that can easily be
explained by the increase in Voldemort's power now that he has a body
of his own. And that strength apparently makes Harry "alive" to
Voldemort's anger, which he sometimes feels as his own, and which may
have been acquired along with the powers as part of the legacy of
Godric's Hollow. Voldemort certainly did not lose his anger and give
it to Harry; IMO, he kept it, along with the Parseltongue and the
Legilimency and the ability to use an Unforgiveable Curse, but could
not use it or manifest it in any way until he had a body. The stronger
the body, the stronger his own powers and the stronger the connection
with Harry.
Snow wrote:
> The worst properties of the powers that Harry has unknowingly
> acquired from Voldemort is exactly what makes Harry's statement at
> the end of OOP so utterly ironic:
>
> "But I don't!" said Harry in a strangled voice. "I haven't any
powers he hasn't got. I couldn't fight the way he did tonight, I can't
possess peopleor kill them"
>
> Harry has never acquired the power to possess people; this statement
came from Voldy himself; so Harry defiantly is correct that he does
not have the power to possess people. <snip>
> Why can Harry not use an unforgivable curse
because,like Dumbledore,
he is too noble to use them or to understand that he has the power to
use them via the Voldemort legacy unknowingly bestowed on him.
Carol responds:
I certainly agree that the statement is ironic, one more example of
Harry not knowing the full truth of his situation. He *has* acquired
powers from Voldemort despite his denial of the situation; we just
don't know which ones. (And his acquisition of those powers in no way
implies that Voldemort doesn't also have them.)
We can't really say that the power to possess people is definitely not
one of the powers that was transferred to Harry at GH. I think you're
assuming that because it was the one power Voldemort still had while
he was without a body. But he regained the others later, or rather the
ability to use them, so he never really lost them, either. We don't
*know* that Harry doesn't have that power. He certainly thought he did
when he dreamed that he, as the snake, was biting Mr. Weasley. I'll
reserve judgment on that one, though I certainly hope he doesn't have,
or use, that power. It's hard to see how it could be used for good
except against Voldemort himself.
However, I don't think the ability to use an Unforgiveable Curse was
transferred to Harry. I think that's something that the individual
wizard has to acquire through a desire to do harm or violate the mind
or body of another human being. Barty Jr. acquired it. So did
Bellatrix and most of the other DEs. None of them received powers from
Voldemort at Godric's Hollow or anywhere else. They just used their
own power and their own evil will to perform spells that Harry is not
yet powerful and certainly not evil enough to perform. (If he ever
succeeds in performing one, the WW is in trouble because its savior is
heading down Tom Riddle's path.)
I think that the powers Harry acquired are probably those peculiar to
Voldemort, not shared by most other wizards (Parseltongue,
Legilimency, and possibly possession among them). Most other wizard
powers he would already have inherited from his parents--the ability
to fly (and play Quidditch) being the most obvious example.
I'm not by any means saying that I'm right, only that there are other
ways to look at the situation than the one you're proposing. And we
don't disagree on all points, only on the idea that Voldemort actually
*lost* all but one of his powers and now has to channel them back
through Harry's scar. I agree that Harry has (shares) *some* of
Voldemort's powers and that his denial that he shares any powers with
Voldemort is ironic. But I don't think that the powers "reside" in
Harry and that Voldemort has to get them back. They will be *equals*,
per the Prophecy, when they meet for that final battle. IOW, Harry
will have the same powers as Voldemort, some acquired at GH and some
native to him at his birth.
> Snowwho occasionally wishes this were a chat room instead of an
> adult forum
No offence to you Carol
Carol responds:
No offense taken. But anyone who's seen me attempt chat knows I'm
better at lists that allow me detailed (and proofread!) replies than
at short, quick responses, especially for complicated questions like
this one.
Carol, hoping that her position is clearer this time around
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